Archived threads in /his/ - History & Humanities - 4009. page

>>582313
>the greeks seemed to have gotten used to the romans and in general, didnt mind being under roman rule? Am i wrong?Did they resent the romans

Dude, there was this massive revolt where all of greece united against their roman overlords. The one initiated by Pontus and where based Sulla fought.
Pretty much every roman living in greece was murdered there.
also there were lots of smaller uprisings and bloody sieges of cities (theben comes to mind) before.

Though probably 50-100 years later there were indeed no more resent, because rome itself became hellenized. You know, all the "Graecia capta ferum victorem cepit" stuff.

>>582313
>Did they resent the romans?

Mostly just felt a sense of superiority over them.

>Were there major revolts in greece 50, 100, 200 years after the conquest?

Not really.

>If a greek travelled west, would he have found rome and other cities quite different from his native greece?

This was the case with the entire Roman empire. People seem to be under the mistaken impression that everyone became the same under Rome with a single uniform culture, each city was a nation and each region had its own sense of identity. The Greeks particularly. Instead of finding gymnasions, libraries and theatres in abundance, and Greek style agora marketplaces, they'd have been shocked to find an obsession with gladitorial fighting, beast slaying etc. Food was very different depending on where you are in the world, with the Romans preferring pork. Both liked wine though.

>>582313
Well i small fact is that the greeks eventually came to call themselves Romioi and the byzantine empire Rhomania as did other people under Roman influence (modern Romania).

>>582003
because the bourgeois took over and the first and the pinnacle of bourgeoisie is the english one, with any other bourgeoisie copying them.

>>582051
t. gommie

>>582003
because london was the financial capital of the world for a very long time

>>582001
Because the Germans stole it.

>>582010

hon hon hon

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>Alsace was a part of France before Germany even existed.

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WW2 kinda made it hard but there used to be newspapers in the Midwest in German. You can probably guess why that stopped. Makes you wonder if it would have stayed diverse

>>581908
If England / Britain wasn't so aggressive for North America, there would probably be Swedish and Dutch speakers around New York, Dominant French Speakers in mid-America and all of Canada, and most of the south west and Florida would be Spanish.

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look at more diverse portions of the americas for examples

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>>581903
Read none.

>>582441
Why?

Come on /his/, surely there must be someone that can help me here.

>>581806

Cause France, England, the German Mess, Mediterranean and Ottoman Empire.

>>581812
But they had much mor power and overall superiority

>>581816

Thats why managed to keep alive without fully imploding.

Normans were French.

>>581802
How? They founded 3 kingdoms and in England they colonized the whole English aristocracy and made it french

almost all pre-16th century european warriors are memes

>>581446
There's a famous aboriginal film about the claim over babakew plaz

>>581446
Be first on land
and if you're not
kill the locals if you're stronger than them.
Then you're "First"

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>>581446

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Poland, thanks to Stalin.

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>>581235
NIHON

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It's so pretty.

>my high school history teacher didn't know about Cyrus the great and the Persian empire

the bulk of it is looking at actual history in depth while those other 2 are crash courses for pseuds

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>>581214
>tfw the Byzantine history department got axed

weee

>>581213
thanks /k/, you're good mates

>>581281
We try!

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Hollywood and Vine 1950s

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>tfw

>>581165
>>581172
How is Neon Great Germania /his/?

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Indeed, what of it?

>>581096
When did Comedians stop being funny and are just staffed by people with tremendous insecurities?

>>581096
>that quote
But wouldn't that be the median stupidity? Significantly more than half are smarter than the average because abnormal negative deviance from the norm is more common than significant positive deviance which sway the average.
pretty possible I've switched up median and average though, been a while since it was relevant to me.

>>580697
I value various systems of logic because they can reliably be used to understand a course of actions without having to actually take place (thought) and can be used to create reliable predictions within my world view which have been useful with such a level of persistence that I place a certain amount of assumption that it will continue to maintain that level of uniform predictability with the result. The same reasons as to why I decide to drive a car at speeds fast enough that would involve, once again from that same net of beliefs in my world view, a probably prediction of death.

Basically, how I derive value from logic is from a practical sense and don't really inherently value anything. I don't really know enough about what other people generally claim to make claims for anyone else. Don't really get out so the people in my general interaction, this "we", may generally hold entirely different public views on the matter. They could be lizard people in semi decent human suits for all I pay attention to them.

What in particular does this have to do with history and humanities?

>>580729
>they can reliably be used to understand a course of actions without having to actually take place (thought) and can be used to create reliable predictions within my world view
then why can nobody prove this statement ?

>>580697
Wittgenstein argued in the Tractatus contra Frege that there can be no rules for logic, or in modern terms that language should be its own meta-language, as is indeed the case with natural languages. "And what can not be said should be passed over in silence", which is probably "Wittgenstein's mysticism" that Russell mentions. However, Russell himself was well aware of Wittgenstein's position, but suggested a hierarchy of languages instead.

>>580697


Many have argued that logic is empirical, or as you describe it, logic's "axioms are dependent on observation".

Quine, in his paper "Two Dogmas of Empiricism" questioned the analytic-synthetic distinction, and suggested that even analytic propositions were dependent on empirical evidence. Since the rules of logic were analytic propositions par excellence, they too, were ultimately dependent on empirical data, and were not absolute laws.

Birkhoff and Von Neuman proposed in the 1930s that the paradoxes of Quantum Mechanics can be explained if we abandoned classical logic and used some form of Quantum logic instead. Such a Quantum logic would change or abandon all together some of the rules of classical logic, and would be a perfect case of logical axioms arrived at by observation.

Hilary Putnam discussed this in depth in his paper "Is Logic Empirical?" Later republished as "The Logic of Quantum Mechanics.". In it he argued that, just as empirical physical results - relativity - forced us to abandon Euclidean geometry, so it is possible that the results of quantum mechanics will force us to abandon classical logic.

Although Quantum logic is still an active field of study up to the present day, it is does not get much attention from most philosophers and had been abandoned completely by physicists. Those who do study view it mainly as a mathematical tool for studying Quantum phenomena, not as some sort of fundamental logic to replace our current classical rules of logic.

>>580658
comparative politics in eurasia
http://pastebin.com/DMm1p9Ty
the cold war
http://pastebin.com/eEbXk5kp

>>580658
Vladimir Andrle
Sheila Fitzpatrick
Simon Pirani

>>580672
Is there a full list of these somewhere?

I know they're from Oxford Bibliographies.