Why is this proof actually a thing? Clearly, multiplying s by x will create an x^(n+1) term at the end.
>inb4 brainlet
Yes I do know about infinite series, /sci/, and that infinity + 1 should still equal infinity. However, this is not equal to 1 + infinity, which is what's in this proof.
Clearly, x^(n+1) is incredibly large and can not just be neglected because "m-muh n is approaching infinity" (which the author didn't even explicitly say, kek).
Point is: If n is a finite number, which it acts like in this proof (the series has a final term), then this can't possibly hold.
Anyone else sometimes question the legitimacy of foundational maths sometimes and think that it's all wrong, and that mathematicians just work around difficult concepts like infinity to make the established model work right? I think there are too many plot holes like pic related. Reckon there could be a more TRUE maths that we just can't comprehend yet, or at all.
this only works for |x| < 1
im guessing either the pic youı posted is wrong, or x^n becomes so small that it doesn'T matter
>>8977716
It's authors privilege.
He could have let s = 1+x+...x^n-1
>>8977720
OP here. You're right, I didn't specify this was for convergent series. Thought it was obvious enough to not have to mention here, but yeah, if x^n is so small that it doesn't matter, then it is only a good approximation. And even then, if that's the case then by that logic you get inconsistent results if you try the sx^2 case, and so on..
>>8977716
>Why is this proof actually a thing? Clearly, multiplying s by x will create an x^(n+1) term at the end.
Yes, you are right.
That "Proof" is bullshit.
It has to go like this:
Sn=1+x+...+x^n
xSn=x+x^2+...+x^n+x^(n+1)
S-xSn=1-x^(n+1)
Sn(1-x)=1-x^(n+1)
for x =/= 1
Sn=[1-x^(n+1)]/[1-x]
1+x+x^2+... is by definition the limit as n goes to infinity of sn.
If |x|<1 then x^(n+1) goes to 0.
Thus lim sn = 1/(1-x)
it's poorly written, but i guess the n is meaningless as the series is infinite.
>>8977732
Thank you anon, well written.
Kinda wished this wasn't the case though. i like the idea of creating a shitstorm over a well-established field - makes things more interesting
>>8977716
Wrong.
When your x > 1, 1 + x + x^2 + ... on and on to infinity IS infinity.
Therefore you can't just subtract one, add parenthesis, or even do something as benign as multiply by x/x, because infinity DOES not obey the same rules.
As such, his (2) is illegal.
>>8977716
This is a very fucking shitty proof, what's the source?
>>8977716
This proof is literally wrong, he multiplies x to s but forgets to make the last term x^(n+1) instead of just x^n
>>8977716
I hope you didn't make this image because it's wrong and retarded in multiple ways
>>8977737
>A random brainlet making an incorrect proof
>creating a shitstorm over a well-established field
You're going to have to try harder than that
>>8977716
People 6000 years from now will find it cute how wrong we are in our understanding of the universe with our archaic and primitive understanding of math.
>>8977716
This is a horrible explanation of this proof.
[math]s[/math] represents a partial sum, and (5) should say [math]s=s_n=\frac{1-x^{n+1}}{1-x}[/math]. The "infinite" sum is just the limit of [math]\{s_n\}[/math] which any calc student can check is [math]\frac{1}{1-x}[/math].