So I was wondering if anyone can verify this answer.
For the moment of inertia, it's the sum of the mass times r squared, or in integral form, r squared times dm. Why is r squared left as a constant in the integral? Isn't r also changing according to each dm?
So I asked this to a physics major, and he told me to just take it as it is, since I'm only taking single variable calculus atm. He said the actual integral involves multivariable calculus, hence there would be a dr. Can anyone verify if he's correct?
Try looking it up on the internet instead of asking, this is trivial and there are myriad resources that go into whatever level of detail you could possibly want.
>>8509878
Wow, calm down, I've tried searching it up, but, there is no concrete answer. The only result I found were questions using this as an integral, without any proof as why r squared is left as a constant. Hence, I'm asking here as a last resort (professor still didn't respond).
>>8509885
r^2 is the jacobian for spherical integrals
google that, then come back to me
>>8509905
From the google searches, Jacobian is multivariable, I haven't done multivariable yet. So I guess, I should just take the general formula as such?
>>8509914
Pretty much. In rough terms, the r^2 is a bookkeeping term that converts spherical to cartesian. Until you've addressed spherical integrals you'll just have to take it as granted.
>>8509924
Thank you, that r^2 has been bugging me for the past few days... finally some relief..
>>8509871
I'm assuming to are talking about [math]I = \int r^{2} dm[/math]
You need to be careful with the notation here. [math]r^{2}[/math] is referring to the distance from the axis of rotation to a mass [math]dm[/math] . Depending on your mass, a change of variables will be needed. Take a uniform solid sphere of radius [math]R[/math] for example. Because the integral is dealing with little bits of mass [math]dm[/math], we need to substitute in a mass density and integrate over that to include familiar coordinates. This will done by
[math]\rho = \frac{dm}{dV} \longrightarrow dm = \rho dV[/math]
where [math]\rho[/math] is the mass density of the sphere, which is constant since we assumed uniformity. Our integral then becomes
[math]I = \int r_{ax}^{2}dm = \int_{V}r_{ax}^{2}dm = \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \int_{0}^{R} r_{ax}^{2} \sin^{2}\theta r^{2} dr d\theta d\phi[/math]
Here, I've switched to spherical polar coordinates (google the transformation), which accounts for the change in [math](x,y,z)\rightarrow (r,\theta,\phi)[/math]. If you look up a diagram of spherical coordinates and do some geometry you'll find that [math]r_{ax} = r \sin\theta[/math] meaning [math]r_{ax}^{2} = r^{2}\sin^{2}\theta[/math]. Plugging this into your integral and integrating (look up how to do triple integrals, it's literally just doing three integrals one after the other). You'll get
[math]I = \frac{8}{15}\pi \rho R^{5}[/math]
Note that we still have the mass density. Since we integrated over everything already, we can just use the fact that density = mass/volume, hence [math]\rho = M/ (4/3 \pi R^{2})[/math]. Substitute and reduce to get [math] I = 2/5MR^{2}[/math], which you can confirm in any textbook.
>>8509944
Of course 4chan TeX sucks so let me do some corrections.
I = \int r_{ax}^{2}dm = \int_{V}r_{ax}^{2}dm = \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \int_{0}^{R} r_{ax}^{2} \sin^{2}\theta r^{2} dr d\theta d\phi
should be
I = \int r_{ax}^{2}dm = \int_{V}r_{ax}^{2}dV = \int \int \int r_{ax}^{2} dxdydz = \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \int_{0}^{R} r_{ax}^{2} \sin^{2}\theta r^{2} dr d\theta d\phi
>>8509947
FUCK ME
Of course 4chan TeX sucks so let me do some corrections.
[math]I = \int r_{ax}^{2}dm = \int_{V}r_{ax}^{2}dm = \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \int_{0}^{R} r_{ax}^{2} \sin^{2}\theta r^{2} dr d\theta d\phi[/math]
should be
[math]I = \int r_{ax}^{2}dm = \int_{V}r_{ax}^{2}dV = \int \int \int r_{ax}^{2} dxdydz = \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \int_{0}^{R} r_{ax}^{2} \sin^{2}\theta r^{2} dr d\theta d\phi[/math]