Someone please explain to me why the integral of e^u equals e^u. In my head it makes sense but i cant prove it.
>>8450373
[eqn]\int e^x[/eqn] hehe
>>8450373
what is the derivative of e^x??
>>8450373
because [math]{d\over dx}e^u=e^u[/math]
duh
It is the function whose derivative is itself
y'=y
>>8450373
Nobody knows, it's a mystery.
Because it just is. Prove it to yourself using Riemann sums.
taylor expand and derive u will see
>>8450373
the integral is the accumulation of the function; hence why you can use the definite integral to find the area under a curve
ration it like this; every point on the graph of e^x represents BOTH the slope of the tangent line of the function as well as the accumulation (sum of infinitesimals) up to that x value. hence why it is its own derivative and integral
>>8450373
take its derivative
if that doesn't make sense use the limit definition of a derivative
if you don't understand why the integral is the antiderivative, do a riemann sum
integrate the taylor series and it'll make more sense
>>8450373
It's its own grandfather m80
draw a graph of e^x and you'll quickly find out you need e^x of lead to colour under the graph.
>>8450379
>dx
>u
>>8450373
Math is more pointless than videogames.
you dont need to prove it faggot. youre in calc 2
>>8450373
How are you defining [math] \exp x [/math]?
Using this?
[eqn] \ln x = \int^1_0 \frac{1}{x} [/eqn]
Or this?
[eqn] \exp x = \sum^\infty_{i=0} \frac{x^i}{x!} [/eqn]
*pardon any mistakes. I just woke up and can't be arsed to look up my taylor series.
>>8450373
Remember that e is a constant number. exp(1) is ~2.718
Also, you're integrating in respect to x. e is not a variable.
>>8450379
>{d\over dx}
>this actually works
fugg
>>8450373
>>8450373
Well done op, nice bait.
>>8450734
I hope you're enjoying that electronic device that's doing billions of pointless things per second.
>>8450774
You spent more time TeXing than thinking, didn't you?
>>8450373
Idk how to use the math plugin, I'm dumb.
Axioms:
d/dx ln(x) = 1/x
d/dx x=1
d/dx ln(e^x) = d/dx x=1
d/dx ln(e^x) = d/du ln(u) d/dx e^x //u = e^x
= 1/u d/dx e^x
= 1/e^x d/dx e^x
= 1
Q.E.D
>>8450373
Could copy my last year notes with comments, but too lazy brah
Isn't it basically defined that way?
>>8451980
Yes and no. It more so happens that the L(x) e^x, dy/dx e^x and the integral of e^x dx are all e^x, as such it is incredibly useful for hyperbolic series.
because e is the transcendental connective tissue between functions of different powers.
You stupid fat fuck
>>8450774
cease and desist
>>8450373
it doesnt.
[math]\int e^x dx = e^x + c[/math]
>>8453478
What OP wrote is true because what you wrote is true. OP isn't wrong.
>>8453485
OP gave a particular solution.
i personally dont think that is sufficient.
>>8450373
> the integral of a function
> no precision of variables type
Assuming it's the real defined and valued function
> no bounds
Stopped thinking about it. Reformulate your question.
>>8451977
>intelligent af
>too lazy bruh
literally every /sci/ user
>>8450373
e^x = 1+x+x^2/2!+x^3/3!+x^4/4! ...
int e^x dx = 1+x+x^2/2!+x^3/3!+x^4/4! ... + c' || c' = c-1
int e^x dx = e^x + c'
Did not bother to format in latex because it is this easy to show. The constant is c' for absolute dummies who can't see "where the 1 goes".
ITT: op trolls people into writing 'sex' a bunch of times
>>8456565
Prove it.
>>8456666
>>8456565
Let [math]f(a)=(e^x)^{1/n}[/math].
.
[math]\lim_{t \rightarrow \infty} \left( f(a) - \frac{1}{f(t)} \right)=\frac{d}{dx}f(u) \Leftrightarrow \lim_{t \rightarrow \infty} \left( f(a) - \frac{1}{\infty} \right) [/math]
[math] = \frac{d}{dx}f(u) \Leftrightarrow \lim_{t \rightarrow \infty} \left( f(a) - 0 \right) [/math]
[math]= \frac{d}{dx}f(u).[/math]
.
That yields:
.
[math](e^x)^{1/n} = \frac{d}{dx}f(u) \Leftrightarrow e^x[/math]
[math] = \frac{d}{dx}f(u)^n \Rightarrow \int e^x [/math]
[math] = \int \frac{d}{dx}f(u)^n.[/math]
.
Let's conclude:
.
[math]\int e^x = f(u)^n[/math].
>>8456801
>>8456666
>>8456565
Better display.
Let [math]f(a)=(e^x)^{1/n}[/math].
.
[math]\lim_{t \rightarrow \infty} \left( f(a) - \frac{1}{f(t)} \right)=\frac{d}{dx}f(u) [/math]
[math]\Leftrightarrow \lim_{t \rightarrow \infty} \left( f(a) - \frac{1}{\infty} \right) = \frac{d}{dx}f(u) [/math]
[math]\Leftrightarrow \lim_{t \rightarrow \infty} \left( f(a) - 0 \right) = \frac{d}{dx}f(u).[/math]
.
That yields:
.
[math](e^x)^{1/n} = \frac{d}{dx}f(u) \Leftrightarrow e^x = \frac{d}{dx}f(u)^n [/math]
[math]\Rightarrow \int e^x = \int \frac{d}{dx}f(u)^n.[/math]
.
Let's conclude:
.
[math]\int e^x = f(u)^n[/math].
>>8456801
what a complete bullshit proof.
>>8456836
Did you get this is a meme?
Have you even understood there is a sentence involved in the conclusion of this "proof"?
Because you seem to be such a retard, I am giving myself the right to call you a faggot.
>>8457309
yes ofcourse i get what you are saying retard.
sex is fun hahaha what a nice meme.
still you could have put in effort to make an actual proof. not just that bogus you wrote down.
kys
>>8457331
dumb cs fag cant read math..
heres something in your language.. haha
you == fail && me.KEK() ? die whore