How can I prove that I can put the differentiation operation inside an infinite sum? Like Fourier Series.
Pic related.
>>8381200
>sen
is this the retarded version of sine?
>>8381211
It is the spanish version of sine.
>>8381215
so yes?
I found this. Can anyone help me prove that I can do that with bn*sin(npix/L)?
>>8381200
You can simply rely on the fact that the derivative is a linear operator. That is to say that it has the property that given a sum of two functions f and g, the derivative of their sum D(f+g) is equal to Df + Dg, where D is the derivative operator. Therefore, if you have D(sum(dicks)), you can rewrite it as sum(D(dicks)) where dicks represents some function that OP sucks
>>8381226
I know that, but it doesn't apply on INFINITE sums.
>>8381231
Sure it does. What you're confused about is whether or not the resulting series converges, which the theorem you just posted proves for you. Linear operators have that property I mentioned regardless of the amount of terms in the sum.
>>8381235
Could you recommend me a text?
>>8381236
Linear operators can always be pulled inside of finite sums, but not always infinite sums.
Example:
Define [math] g_n(x) [/math] so that
[math] \sum_{k=1}^n g_k(x)=sin(nx)/n [/math] for each n
(for example, let g_1=sin(x) and [math] g_n=sin(nx)/n-\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}g_{k}[/math])
On the one hand,
[math] (d/dx) \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} g_k(x)=(d/dx)\lim_{n\to\infty} sin(nx)/n=(d/dx)0=0 [/math]
But
[math] \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} g_k'(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{k=1}^n g_k'(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty} (d/dx) \sum_{k=1}^n g_k(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty} (d/dx) sin(nx)/n=\lim_{n\to\infty} cos(nx) [/math]
which is not even a well-defined function
>>8381305
Naw just do it faggot
>>8381247
Baby Rudin, chapter 7
>>8381315
>shown explicit example where it gives you the wrong answer
>"just do it bro"
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