https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hepidgw-l1w&t=327s&ab_channel=pmpowell001
https://tradingeconomics.com/united-states/money-supply-m0
https://www.bls.gov/news.release/cpi.nr0.htm (only shows monthly changes)
This is from a while ago, but I wanted to point out something.
Starting around 5:50 Bernanke says that his mission as FED commissioner is "to look to price stability," and he expresses (possibly feigned) regret that the unadjusted CPI is floating around 3-4% (pre-2012).
If one takes a look at the current CPI , unadjusted prices have not changed much in five years, yet the money supply has skyrocketed. Bernanke remarks that money supply and price inflation do not exhibit a clean, 1:1 relationship. Is he correct?
What gets me still is that if the FED has had almost no influence on price inflation over 5 years, and considering what Bernanke said about the FED's mission, then WTF are they doing? At best, they are a non-effective extra-governmental agency. It seems as though he cares not about decreasing the prices so much as he cares about making sure prices stay stable in a fixed market-- I mean, that's basically what he said, anyway.
Is there anything going on here besides "muh banking jews?" In my experience, Keynesians do not like to admit when gov't is not effective, but I dunno.
Someone help educate my economically deficient brain.
should read: adjusted, not unadjusted