Help me understand

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Comey said that trumps "better hope there are no tapes" tweet caused him to leak, which we know isn't possible since he leaked before the tweet was sent, but even if you ignore that, his comments still don't make sense to me.

I recall him saying that he decided to leak to make sure his comments could be corroborated by the tapes. What am I missing here, that causes this to actually make sense? The tapes would have spoken for themselves, and likely not required further comment. How does a statement on the contents of the conversation add any more corroboration than a recording and transcript? I want to understand the play he was trying to make, and to be clear, I'm admittedly confused and feeling like I'm missing something here.