Latin grammar

>>3376354
It does sound the same, though I don't speak German.

The Latin subjunctive is to join (jungo) subordinate (sub) clauses to their main clauses, and to express things like wishes, commands, etc.

> He says that he speaks German.
> Dicit qui Germanam *dicat*.
instead of indicative 'dicit'.

>>3376416
Is it true that English Latin dictionaries listing verbs list the infinitive second and the first person present singular first?

e.g.:
pono, ponere, posui, positum
instead of:
ponere, pono, posui, positum

>>3376429
Yes.

The ones I have usually miss off the repetitious parts, and substitute the verb conjugation for the second part, e.g.

> ponō 3 posuī positum
> amō 1 -āvī -tum

My Ancient Greek dictionaries list the first person present indicative first too.

>>3376459
That's actually quite a mental adjustment one has to make when switching between dictionaries.

When learning Ancient Greek, do English texts use terms like "mood" (instead of "modus") and "voice" (instead of "diathesis"), too?

>>3376539
>That's actually quite a mental adjustment one has to make when switching between dictionaries.
I just noticed that one of the big German dictionaries, PONS, first lists the 1st person singular present active, too, though.

File: confused_looking_anime_girls_with_question_marks_on_their_head_124.gif (79KB, 350x415px) Image search: [Google]

79KB, 350x415px

Is there ever a case where the ultimate syllable of a multi-syllable word is the one that is accentuated?

Or is it always the penultimate or antepenultimate one that is accentuated?

>>3376539
>When learning Ancient Greek, do English texts use terms like "mood" (instead of "modus") and "voice" (instead of "diathesis"), too?

Yeah.

>>3376539
'Modus' means literally 'mood'. And vice versa. So no biggie.

>>3376609
Not in Latin. Common in Greek and Sanskrit.

>>3376539
All the dictionaries, printed or online, put the 1s PIA first. Never seen the infinitive first.

File: confused_looking_anime_girls_with_question_marks_on_their_head_133.png (47KB, 215x289px) Image search: [Google]

47KB, 215x289px

>>3376416
>and to express things like wishes, commands, etc.
Would it be fair to generalize the function of the subjunctive as follows?

The function of the subjunctive is to show the attitude of the speaker towards what has been said.

>>3377640
The only problem I see is that the indicative also reveals something about the attitude of the speaker: That he assumes what has been said to be a fact.

Testing some diacriticals:

◌́
◌
◌̆
◌̮
◌̧
◌̒
◌̀
◌̏

>>3376429
Yes. Not sure why, but that's considered normal.

>>3376609
No, not in Latin.

>>3377672
I can see them just fine.

I'm trying to talk dirty using only linguistic words.

So far, I've gathered:

cognate
clitic
flex

>>3377745
Labial

>You can use the subjunctive to express a general characteristic.
What does this refer to?

What's the opposite of a complementary infinitive?

An objective infinitive?