Been working on one for university, and I think I have it saying what I want it to say, but I just wanted some outside opinions. Without further ado:
The international legal definition of Genocide are described in Articles 2 and 3 of the 1948 Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of Genocide. Article 2 includes two elements of the crime of genocide, a mental element of intention to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial, or religious group as such, and a physical element further defined in Article 3, of actually attempting to do so. The physical element includes killing members of the group causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group, deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group; or forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
While this definition was created in 1948, with the horrors of the Second World War and accompanying atrocities fresh in the minds of its legislators, it is easy enough to look back and retroactively apply these definitions to other historical actions, such as the Armenian genocide, and to see whether or not they would fit modern sensibilities as such. However, doing so invites many spurious comparisons. Many large scale massacres, while tragic to be sure, are not genocides, and labeling them as such would be inaccurate. These wild comparisons are especially thrown about in the Colombian exchange, and while there probably were genocides contained in them, such as of the Taino people, not all ethnic groups wiped out during said exchange would fall under the category of genocide, for lacking some or all of the mental elements.
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>>3368031
In specific, this paper seeks to demonstrate that the destruction of the Aztec Empire, and its components of Mexica culture, Nahuatl language speakers, and teotl worshippers do not constitute a genocide. These Mexican cultures (hereinafter referred to as "M*xican" to avoid offending the sensibilities of the delicate) cannot be considered to be genocidal for failing to meet a critical component in the 1948 genocide definition, despite it not being said. It is perhaps so common and implicitly obvious that nobody ever thought to include it, but it is clear that genocide only applies to humans, and that the Portuguese driven exctinction of the Dodo, or the widespread destruction of the Americans plains buffalo, do not constitute genocides. So to, the M*xicans, not being human, cannot have a genocide applied to them. This paper will demonstrate their lack of human qualities, and therefore how no genocide can be applied to them.
That's it so far. Thoughts?
>>3368031
That's the Turk's argument, for sure. They did not have in their minds the utter elimination of the Armenians.
>>3368034
>So to, the M*xicans, not being human,
This should not exist in any uni paper, ever.
>>3368060
Why not?