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Let's play a quick game of historical connect-the-dots.
Most of you know that the Latin alphabet derives from the Greek alphabet, which in turn derives from Phoenician. Cyrillic comes from Greek too, of course. What you might not know is that the Arabic, Georgian and Hindi (Devanagari) alphabets (and their sister systems, Ethiopian, Thai, Gujarati, etc) also derive from Phoenician -- Hindi and Arabic through Aramaic, and Georgian through Greek.
Something else you might not know is that the Phoenician alphabet has been linked, with a fair amount of evidence, to the Sinaitic alphabet that was used for the Canaanite languages in the 2nd millennium BC.
Sinaitic developed (and we can say this with confidence) from Egyptian hieroglyphic writing.
Egyptian -> Sinaitic -> Phoenician -> Greek -> Latin/Cyrillic/Georgian/etc
Egyptian -> Sinaitic -> Phoenician -> Aramaic -> Arabic/Hindi/Thai/etc
In short, if you're reading this and you're not from Korea, Japan or China, your native writing system comes, in an unbroken if circuitous line, from Ancient Egypt.
As far as written language is concerned, you might say that
>we
>all
>wuz
<----------------------------
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This isn't a low effort bait post, it's not going to survive long.
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>>2033213
Probably not! Even though I gave it a baity image and title. Best I could do.
(I'll also take this opportunity to note, before someone else does, that Arabic, Devanagari etc technically aren't alphabets, they're abjads and abugidas -- but who gives a shit.)
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>>2033236
Didn't alphabets evolve from abjads?
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Babylon is the origin of paganism.
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>>2033263
Yes, in the sense that the Phoenician writing system was actually an abjad. And since every true alphabet derives from Phoenician (excepting, you know, a priori stuff like) ... yeah.
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>>2033192
Source that the spread of the Phoenician alphabet predates the writing of the Vedas?
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>>2033301
a priori stuff like Hangul*
And stuff like Tengwar too, I guess.
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The Egyptians were chinese, by the way. East Asians really run the world.
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>>2033306
Well, it doesn't! Because the Vedas were first composed and transmitted orally, just like e.g. the Homeric texts. I'm not an expert in Indian archaeology by any means, so I can't link you a source for what the oldest surviving copy of a Vedic text might be (googled for a minute -- no dice), but the Vedas themselves will definitely predate it by over a millennium.
The Aramaic script probably reached India somewhere near the halfway point of the first millennium BC (propelled along by the Achaemenids) and a couple hundred years afterwards it crystallized into the original Brahmi script, which, so far as I know (and I'm pretty sure so far as anybody knows) is the first script that Sanskrit was written in.
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