A company paid dividends last year.
1 year later, you buy some preferred shares.
Another year later, the company pays dividends again.
Do you get 2 years of dividends (in arrears), or just 1?
I'm starting to become an accounting nerd but these shares are new to me. If you get 2 years, it seems like that would factor into the price of the shares on the market. If it depends on whether you've held the shares or not, it's certainly a lot simpler.
>>2386070
I should mention you are buying 'CUMULATIVE preferred shares'
Sell your grandpas stocks and buy BitBean!