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Anyone good at logic? Premise 1: ( f ^ e ) ^ q -> p Premise

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Thread replies: 10
Thread images: 3

Anyone good at logic?

Premise 1: ( f ^ e ) ^ q -> p
Premise 2: f
Premise 3: q (or) e
Conclusion: p

How to you prove this argument invalid (or valid) if the conclusion is integral to the first premise?

Thank you <3
>>
>>173642
>( f ^ e ) ^ q -> p
>dingus puts parentheses around the wrong thing

is it
( f ^ e ^ q ) -> p
f ^ e ^ ( p -> q )
>>
>>173642
You could use the 0, 1 table.

Suppose that both q and e are true. Then the Premise 1 implication holds since f^e^q is true hence p.
If either q or e is not true then the other is true if we want Premise 3 to hold. But then in Premise 1 f^e^q is not true, but from false assumption we can prove anything hence p is true as well in this case.
f must be true for Premise 2 to hold, and q (and) e can't be false at the same time since we have Premise 3.

You could also use a proof by contradiction.
>>
Counterexample.

f = true
q = true
e = false
p = false

All the premises hold but the conclusion's false.
>>
File: 1468858062434.jpg (502KB, 2734x1672px) Image search: [Google]
1468858062434.jpg
502KB, 2734x1672px
>>173664
As far as I understand, an argument is invalid if a situation in which all premises are true, but the conclusion false, is possible.
(the critical row on truth tables)

So, you take P to be false (it's the false conclusion we're trying to prove)

Since f is a premise we take f to be true

Take both q and e as true (premise 3)

But this makes premise 1 false, because
x -> y returns false where x is true and y is false.

Is this argument thereby valid?
>>
>>173685
It's q or e, not q and e. You can set one to false.
>>
>>173687
No you can't, because that fucks up premise 1 (all ands), no?
>>
>>173689
oh fuck no, because f -> f returns true
>>
>>173690
You got it. That only returns false if it's F -> T
>>
>>173694
thanks anon
Thread posts: 10
Thread images: 3


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