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https://leangsimschoolboy.files.wor dpress.com/2013/09/stude

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File: IMG_20170905_221952.jpg (84KB, 973x608px) Image search: [Google]
IMG_20170905_221952.jpg
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https://leangsimschoolboy.files.wordpress.com/2013/09/student_solutions_manual_for_mathematical_methods_for_physics_and_engineering.pdf

Can someone explain how the latter part the answer to this question is worked out? Picrelated is the question and answer on page 67 of the pdf but there's more below it.
>>
>>9151310
the latter part meaning how [math] \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n} [/math] is divergent?

see if you can find any way to show that the sum adds up the same number infinitely many times.
i'll give you a hint:
[math] \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} > \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{4}[/math]
>>
>>9151325

Thanks but by latter part I meant the explanation in the pdf immediately below what's shown in the picture. the r>=2 part
>>
>>9151343
look at this and see if you can figure it out
[math] \frac{(n-r)!}{(n)!}, r \ge 2 \implies \frac{(n-r)!}{(n)!} \ge \frac{(n-2)!}{(n)!} = \frac{(n-2)!}{(n)(n-1)(n-2)!} = \frac{1}{(n-2)!} [/math]
>>
>>9151372
woops i botched that final expression.
you should be able to see what it should be
Thread posts: 5
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