Is it possible to get the same number twice if you random a number

The chances of it happening would be the first number divided by the second number, or

[eqn]0/∞[/eqn]

There's zero probability but it's not impossible.

The chance of that happening is almost zero bt not exactly zero. Suppose there is a number, n
If u want to get that number again, the chance of that happening is n/∞ which is almost zero bt not exactly zero

>>9145663
>>9145678
Are you both just trolling?
Use the range 0 through 3 and note how neither of your methods would give you the right answer. The first method of A/B would be 0/3 which is 0% and obviously wrong, while the second method of N/B would give you either 0/3 (0%),1/3 (33.33%),2/3 (66.67%), or 3/3 (100%), all of which are also wrong.
What you actually do is take 1 divided by the range, so 1/4 in the 0 through 3 case or 1/(infinity+1) for the 0 through infinity range

Hey, fuck you. That's not the number 1.

>>9145682
Is that there some sorta delta epsilon shit

>>9145685
baby, you know you want to delta my epsilon. That's what we call anal sex/pron.

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249KB, 1280x853px

Consider the following probability distribution:

[math]P(X = n) = \frac{1}{(2^{n + 1})},\ \ \ \ \ n = 0, \ldots, \infty,[/math]

where [math]P(x = n)[/math] is the probability to draw number [math]n[/math] randomly.

Now, the probability to draw number 0 twice is [math]\frac{1}{4}[/math].

>>9145654
>tfw /sci/ is full of fucking brainlets

If you're drawing uniformly, then the probability of drawing the same number twice is exactly 0, because the probability of drawing any given number is exactly 0

>>9145697
That the probability is 0 doesn't mean it's impossible. It means it almost surely won't happen.

>>9145654
What probability measure do you want to define on [math](0,\infty)[/math]?

>>9145703
>>9145703
>>9145703
THIS

teh only answer you will be able to get is by normal counting.

so the answer is 1/n for however big n is.

if you want a better defined answer just make n bigger.

i.e answer = limit n 0 -> inf: 1/n

>>9145654
infinity doesn't exist

>>9145805
*zeno's laterally*

>>9145654
Yes.

>>9145654
yes if you have infinite time

>>9145654
Yes it is possible. It probably wouldn't happen, but nevertheless you shouldn't be surprised if it does happen.

>>9145672
Goddamnit this fucking board. One of these days /sci/ really needs to learn how infinities work.
The probability of selecting something at random from a defined number of possible choices is dependent on the number of choices.
The probability of selecting something at random from an undefined number of possible choices is an undefined probability.
The amount of numbers between 0 and infinity is infinite. An infinite amount of things is an undefined amount of things.
The answer to your question is therefore that the probability is not defined. What can be said is that as the range is increased, the probability of selecting the same number twice decreases. As the range tends to infinity, the probability tends to zero. The probability would never reach zero for the same reason that a defined range cannot actually become infinite.

>>9145654
-The concept of infinity doesn't map to anything in reality, and likely cannot. Because it doesn't and cannot exist. ie, it is not a thing the universe allows. ie, our universe doesn't work that way.
-Logically, the answer is yes. If the selection is truly random all states have an equal probability. The chance is infinitely close to zero, but nonetheless, non-zero.

>>9147733
your a retard.

theres nothing wrong with having an infinite probability space, the probability to get the same number is 0, you will 'almost surely' get a different number.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Almost_surely

>>9145654
>infinity
No such thing.