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So...just out of curiosity....
We know that when a man and a women make a child, the child would share approx 50% of the fathers dna.
But if the father then impregnates the child. Then any child resulting from that would share approx 75% of the fathers dna.
Therefore, theoretically, is it possible that any child resulting from THAT child would create a literal genetic clone of the father?
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>>8981319
it's not a perfect clone, that'S impossible because there is homologous recombination during female meiosis (it creates novel combinations)
but it can come close to one, and this is called a back crossing
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>>8981319
it can never be a perfect genetic clone because you lose one set of chromosomes when creating the kid you fuck. so the kid is haploid for your genes, you are diploid for your genes, you fuck, and again, half of the genes from both are lost, including potentially some of your material in the kid.
basically you couldnt accomplish a perfect clone (alleles exactly the same) through this, that's the point of genetic variation advantage of crossing over during meiosis
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>>8981327
even with backcrossing, causing the exact allele distribution the father has would be statistically impossible, unless eventually a way is found that allows for chromosomes to segregate with a bias, and we obtain control of that mechanism, and apply it to every gene
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