say f:N->R is a mapping from the natural numbers to the rational numbers in [0, 1]. does the infinite sum from 0 of f(n) converge?
i meant a bijection, not only a mapping
I would assume not, there is probably a conflicking rules proof you can make to prove it. Like why is 1^infinity undefined kind of thing
>>8717968
Conflicting*
>>8717962
in other words, is the sum of all rational numbers between 0 and 1 finite? the answer is no, because the sum must exceed 1/2+1/3+1/4+...
>>8717973
of course. thanks
>>8717978
no problem m8
>>8717973
Wouldn't the sum of all rational numbers between 0 and 1 be 2?
Not trying to start a 0.99999 equal 1 thread or anything but the sum of rational numbers would be 1 and all the rational numbers between 1.
>>8717982
0.9+0.8+0.7 > 2
>>8717985
ok yes nevermind sorry I am inbred retard brainlet