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I was thinking about curvature(k) a little the other day. If the circumference of a sphere changes, from lets say C to C+1, should the curvature change in respect to the circumference at all? Or should it remain constant. I was thinking we could use the point ((C/2pi), 0,0) and ((C/2pi)+4,0,0) to describe the 2 changing points and constructing our r(t) curve, if following the curvature formula after finding T, the curvature would not change at all. Is this true? I've never seen any problems like this and I was just wondering if it's even possible to find curvature change in respect to the circumference of the sphere.
If any of you geniuses can give an answer that'd be great.
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lol Christ I'm a moron, I just remembered k=1/R. So smaller spheres have much larger curvature and visa versa. sorry /sci/ I din't need you after all.
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What a fucking retard...
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>>8477856
Why +4? I'd just do (rcos(t),rsin(t),0)
Differentiate twice to get -(rcos(t),rsin(t),0)
Then the curvature is
1/sqrt(r^2(cos^2(t)+sin^2(t))=1/r
So the curvature has an inversely proportional relationship to the radius, and therefore to the circumference. This makes sense since a large circle starts looking like a line locally.
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>>8477892
If it changes we could just use C=2piR, then C+4=2piR or any arbitrary change in circumference , then solve for pi then we can use 1/R then right?
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>>8477895
I meant solve for radius, not pi. Sorry a little tired.
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>>8477883
nigga you didn't even understand the shit he said, gtfo to /g the brainlet containment board
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>>8477897
I did get it, but there are multiple ways of going about this.
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>>8477895
Any change in circumference is proportional to change in radius so it doesn't really matter if you use radius or circumference. The curvature is 2pi/C if you use circumference.
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