There are two identical objects, i apply 5 newtons of force on

Wrote this because saying the force application causes the object to do nothing doesn't make scene to me because it was already doing nothing,
it's like saying the object does nothingx2. These two objects have the same mass.

Or is it the case that 100% of the time two identical objects will react the same if tempered with in the same manner?

help a brainlet out.

My question was more in the lines of if there are two identical objects that in almost all instances move when exactly 5 newtons of force is applied, but something abnormal that has a non-zero probability of occurring occurs, which is that one of the object doesn't move, the two objects are exactly the same.
we're assuming both object are affected exactly the same by friction.
Can this happen or does it brake some universal law?

To be completely honest i actually don't even know what the fuck i'm asking for or if it's even answerable.

>>8106801
maybe troll
but in physics if you define two system differently, they are different

>>8106499
The only way it wouldn't move would be if there was another force, e.g. friction, or a contact force, acting on the object.

First object collided with the second upon application of the 5N force.

Boom.

>>8106499
> identical objects
>behave differently in any way shape or form under identical conditions .

>>8106801
>does it break some universal law
Yes, Newton's second.

>>8106499
If we're using some retarded logic: You pushed the first object and it was moved in front of the second object, now the entire system would require over 5N of force, assuming that both objects require more than 2.5N of force to move individually.

>>8106499
The second object has a wall behind it. The force you apply deforms the object and wall slightly, but it doesn't move. Is the question seriously just "why doesn't it move even though its the same as one that moved"? Thats pretty fucking dumb.