Why did indoeuropean languages in West Europe lost their inflection

European languages lost their inflection due to being bastardized languages given the heavy influence of latin, german, danish, etc. occupations. Through generations of misunderstanding and folks making do with vague approximations of fluency, the nuances of inflection were replaced by pronouns, prepositions, sentence order, etc.

>>3136260
It mostly had to do with sound changes making case endings identical.

For example, Old English's suffixes for case, number, and gender, -a, -e, -u, -as, -es, -an, -ena, -um all fell together as -e, -es, and -en by the Early Middle English period.

>>3136260
I thought most Indo-Iranian languages retained the majority of their original inflections?

>>3136559
Farsi is "similar" to english in the sense that uses lots of particles and lacks sustantive cases and lost several conjugations

Hindi as well, but not so lite (has varied conjugations and stuff, more akin to, say, romance languages)

why are romance languages gendered while germanics are not?

>>3136609
Isn't german gendered?

>>3136260
Romance languages are highly inflected.

>>3136609
You wot, German itself has a three-gendered system; masculine, feminine, and neuter.

>>3138759
U wot m8?