Was England considered a “colony” of France when it was conquered in 1066? How did it become it's own country again? I've never heard of an event that caused its succession from Normandy.
In England William was a king and a subject to none, while in Normandy he was a duke and a vassal of a French king. He conquered England for himself while still legaly paying his obligations as a duke of Normandy to a king of France.
It's a bit weird to understand but that's feudalism for ya.
>>2662665
England gained its independance in 2 events
Henry IV speaking english as his first language
And losing its territories on the continent in 1453.
From then on, it was distinctly separate from France.
>inb4 Normans ain't french
>>2663174
They're Vikings.
>>2662665
>Was England considered a “colony” of France
>colony
>Europe
>1066
Spotted the American
>>2663198
i never said europe, what are you chatting. also im from britbongistan
The Conqueror claimed the crown of England, which makes them the sovereign ruler, not a vassal.
>>2663306
As king of England, yes, as duke of Normandy, he was still officially the vassal of the king of France
>>2662665
>I've never heard of an event that caused its succession from Normandy.
It's called the hundred years war you uneducated prick.
>>2662665
PIC INCOMING
>>2662665
ANGLO REVISIONISM BTFO
>>2663677
You were conquered by French and not Norman as claimed
Your second question is null and void since the answer to the first one was "no".
>>2663313
>he was still officially the vassal of the king of France
The dukedom was. The Kingship wasn't. The two titles were separate and held different authorities and responsibilities.
>>2663806
But if the King of England is a vassal to the King of France, doesn't that make England a colony of sorts?
>>2663853
Not at all, but it still means that their king is, ultimately, French, a fact which every bong in existence will try to fiercely deny.