When I flip a coin, why is there a higher chance that it'll land on the opposite side next flip?
>what is the law of averages
The assumption underlying this question is that we are dealing with a coin whose fairness can be represented by a Bayesian prior distribution of 1.
not all flips are equally fair
it's possible (and depending on technique, sometimes probable) that a coin appears to flip but actually precesses without flipping. if you're skilled, you can do it on purpose