>>579302 >>>/pol/ Nobody wants to hear your spiel about how "the Jews are using communism as a front to destroy Western civilization." Many jews did participate in communist movements, but only because they were a historically oppressed group at the hands of most existing states at the time. Communism existed as an ideology that would theoretically protect them from such harm; it was in their self interest to participate, not some wide-ranging conspiracy. Actions derived in response to material conditions. You see plenty of jews acting as theorists for capitalism and all manner of other political/economic ideals, largely depending on their origins.
Read Storm of Steel and Alls Quiet Along the Western Front. Pay special attention to the lack of supplies they have towards the end of the war and the amount of supplies and manpower the Allies have at the end of the war.
Also, consider that this landmass has roughly 3x the capacity of industrial output that Germany has, and that this was just ONE of the powers it was fighting.
It was a War of Materiel fought by the factory workers and by the machines that made the weapons, the ammo, and by the governments that issued drafts upon populations that were untouched hitherto by mobilizations.
German defeat was inevitable in WW1 as it was in WW2, and for no want of strategy on their part, rather the amount of resources available to them was extremely deficient, brought about by a policy of division pursued by France and Austria prior to the German Reunification, and by the policies of colonization pursued by all of the Great Powers 1600-1800.
>>579233 You're not wrong, but we have to remember that it wasn't explicitly because they were jews. Communism was gaining ground all through most europe at the time. It only successfully manifested in Russia.
>>578968 Read 'Ring of steel' by Alexander Watson.
Essentially: -The Austro-Hungarians and Ottomans were collapsing. The British were about to push into Turkey itself, and the Central powers all over were facing social revolutions and disruptions
-After the end of the Kaiserschlacht, the Germany army had no real prospects of winning on western front. Desertions, surrendering of entire units with officers and men and a general collapse in morale lead to the 'Blackest days' in the Germany army for the German high command. They knew the jig was up.
-Germany had an actual revolution happening inside Germany itself. The revolutionaries were just forming, but the riots and disturbances just kept coming. They were getting more radical by the day, and there were fears that if peace didn't happen soon this would spread to the army and the Kasier would be overthrown Bolshevik style.
>>578968 >How did Germany lose WWI if they were deep in France when the war ended? Because first they were not "deep in France" anymore when the war ended.
Second because they were routinely routed, surrenderring en masse, their lines were being broken laughably easily and they were generally getting beaten left right and centre for months on end, also add to this the fact that they had no manpower, supplies, resources, unlike the allies.
In short, they were losing, losing hard. Their own generals acknowledged that and pushed for peace.
This is all before the revolutions and mutinies by the way.
In fact it should be kind of telling just how bad the situation on the front was for Germany and how desperate they were for the conflict to end that the allies did not feel the need to keep pushing into the country proper or occupy it.
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